1. When an amendment changes a matter listed in the proviso to Article 368, what extra approval is needed?
A Approval by every State Governor
B Ratification by two-thirds of all local bodies
C Ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States
D A nationwide referendum
Article 368 requires State ratification for specified federal matters, including changes to the Seventh Schedule, before the Bill is presented to the President.
2. What voting threshold must a Constitution Amendment Bill meet in each House under Article 368?
A A majority of the House's total membership and at least two-thirds of members present and voting
B A simple majority of members present
C A majority in a joint sitting of both Houses
D Two-thirds of the House's total membership only
Each House must pass the Bill separately by both parts of this special majority: a majority of total membership and at least two-thirds present and voting.
3. For how long can a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249 remain in force at one time?
A For up to one year, with further one-year renewals possible
B For six months only
C Until the next general election
D For five years without renewal
Article 249 allows the resolution to specify a period not exceeding one year. The Rajya Sabha may renew it for another year by passing a fresh resolution.
4. Before Parliament can make a law under Article 252 for two or more States on a State List matter, what must those States do?
A Hold a joint vote with Parliament
B Obtain approval from the Supreme Court
C Pass resolutions to that effect in all Houses of their Legislatures
D Ask the President to issue an ordinance
Article 252 starts when the legislatures of at least two States pass resolutions requesting a Parliamentary law on a matter they want regulated together.
5. Who may amend or repeal a law made by Parliament under Article 252 for a State?
A Parliament, or Parliament through the same adoption process
B The Supreme Court by a general order
C That State's Governor alone
D The State Legislature alone
Article 252(2) says the State Legislature cannot amend or repeal such a law for a State to which it applies. Parliament must act, using the same manner or adoption route.
6. Which constitutional provision lets Parliament make laws to implement an international treaty or agreement?
A Article 368
B Article 249
C Article 312
D Article 253
Article 253 empowers Parliament to make a law for all or part of India to implement a treaty, agreement, convention, or decision of an international body.
7. What Rajya Sabha vote is needed before Parliament may create a new All-India Service under Article 312?
A Approval from every State Assembly
B At least two-thirds of members present and voting
C A simple majority of the total membership
D At least three-fourths of all Lok Sabha members
Article 312 requires a Rajya Sabha resolution supported by at least two-thirds of members present and voting, declaring that creating the service is necessary or expedient in the national interest.
8. What vote must a State Legislative Assembly pass before Parliament may create or abolish that State's Legislative Council?
A A unanimous vote of the Assembly and Council
B A simple majority of members present
C A majority of its total membership and at least two-thirds of members present and voting
D Two-thirds of the total membership only
Article 169 requires both thresholds in the State Assembly. Parliament may then pass a law to create or abolish the Legislative Council.
9. How many members may the President nominate to the Rajya Sabha under Article 80?
A Eight
B Twelve
C Fifteen
D Ten
Article 80 allows twelve nominated Rajya Sabha members. They are selected for special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, or social service.
10. How are State representatives to the Rajya Sabha elected?
A By all citizens through a direct vote
B By elected State MLAs using proportional representation by the single transferable vote
C By elected Lok Sabha members using simple majority
D By the Governor using an open ballot
Article 80 provides that elected members of each State Legislative Assembly choose that State's Rajya Sabha representatives through proportional representation by the single transferable vote.
11. What qualification must a person have to be appointed Attorney-General for India?
A They must be qualified to be appointed a Supreme Court judge
B They must have served as a State Governor
C They must have served as a High Court Chief Justice for ten years
D They must be a sitting Lok Sabha member
Article 76 says the President appoints as Attorney-General a person qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court.
12. How long does the Attorney-General for India hold office under Article 76?
A During the pleasure of the President
B For a fixed five-year term
C Until age sixty-five
D Until the next Lok Sabha election
Article 76(4) states that the Attorney-General holds office during the pleasure of the President; the Constitution does not set a fixed term.
13. How may the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India be removed from office?
A By a simple order of the Prime Minister
B In the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge
C By the Finance Commission
D By a majority vote in the Lok Sabha alone
Article 148 protects the CAG's independence by allowing removal only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
14. After leaving office, which position may a former CAG take under the Constitution?
A Any Union ministerial post
B Any office approved by the Lok Sabha Speaker
C A State Governor's post only
D No further office under the Union Government or any State Government
Article 148(4) makes a former CAG ineligible for further office under the Government of India or under the Government of any State.
15. Who places a State CAG report before the State Legislature under Article 151?
A The CAG lays it before the Supreme Court
B The Chief Minister presents it to the Rajya Sabha
C The Governor causes the report to be laid before the Legislature
D The President sends it to the Lok Sabha
A CAG report about State accounts is submitted to the Governor. The Governor then causes it to be laid before the State Legislature.
16. Who appoints the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities under Article 350B?
A The Election Commission of India
B The President of India
C The Chief Justice of India
D The Governor of each State
Article 350B provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities appointed by the President.
17. What is the main duty of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?
A Set the official language of each State
B Conduct language-based census surveys every year
C Approve school textbooks in every State
D Investigate constitutional safeguards for linguistic minorities and report to the President
Article 350B directs the officer to investigate matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities and report to the President.
18. Which type of sentence is expressly covered by the President's clemency power under Article 72?
A A sentence imposed by a Court Martial
B A civil damages award
C A sentence imposed only by a village council
D A penalty imposed by a municipal body
Article 72 expressly includes cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial. It also covers Union-law offences and death sentences.
19. After the 44th Amendment, in which kind of National Emergency does Article 358 apply?
A President's Rule in one State
B An Emergency based on war or external aggression
C An Emergency based only on armed rebellion
D A Financial Emergency
Article 358 applies during an Emergency based on war or external aggression. It does not apply to an Emergency based only on armed rebellion.
20. Which two Fundamental Rights are excluded from a suspension order under Article 359?
A The rights under Articles 14 and 19
B The rights under Articles 20 and 21
C The rights under Articles 29 and 30
D The rights under Articles 25 and 26
Article 359 allows the President to suspend court enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights during an Emergency, but it expressly excludes Articles 20 and 21.
21. What protection does Article 300A give to a person's property?
A A person can be deprived of property only by authority of law
B Property can never be acquired by the State
C Only citizens may own property
D Property disputes can be heard only by Parliament
Article 300A states that no person shall be deprived of property except by authority of law. The right is a constitutional right, not a Fundamental Right.
22. How soon must both Houses of Parliament approve a National Emergency proclamation under Article 352?
A Within one week
B Within six months
C Within one month
D Within two months
Article 352 says a National Emergency proclamation normally ceases after one month unless both Houses approve it within that period.
23. When may a National Emergency be proclaimed before a war, aggression, or armed rebellion actually begins?
A Whenever a State Assembly requests it
B When one-tenth of MPs sign a petition
C Only after the Supreme Court confirms an attack
D When the President is satisfied that there is imminent danger of it
Article 352 allows a proclamation before the event occurs if the President is satisfied that there is imminent danger of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
24. After both Houses approve a National Emergency, how long does that approval last before further approval is needed?
A One month at a time
B Until the next Lok Sabha election
C Six months at a time
D One year at a time
Under Article 352, an approved proclamation continues for six months. Both Houses can approve each further six-month period.
25. After Parliament approves a President's Rule proclamation under Article 356, what is the usual period before another continuation vote is needed?
A One month
B Two years
C Six months
D One year
Article 356 provides for continuation in periods of six months after approval, with Parliament required to approve each further continuation.
26. What is the general maximum period for President's Rule in a State under Article 356?
A No maximum period
B One year in every case
C Five years without further approval
D Three years, subject to constitutional conditions for continuing beyond one year
Article 356 sets a general outer limit of three years. Continuing beyond the first year requires additional constitutional conditions and Parliamentary resolutions.
27. Which conditions are required to continue President's Rule beyond one year?
A An Emergency must be active in India or in all or part of that State, and the Election Commission must certify that Assembly elections are difficult to hold
B Every State Assembly must pass a unanimous resolution
C The Governor and Chief Minister must jointly request it
D The Supreme Court must dissolve Parliament
Article 356(5) requires an Emergency to be in operation in India or in the whole or part of the State. The Election Commission must also certify that election difficulties require the extension.
28. Under the Tenth Schedule, what share of a legislature party must agree for a merger exemption from defection disqualification?
A All members
B At least one-third
C More than half
D At least two-thirds
Paragraph 4 of the Tenth Schedule treats a merger as valid for this exemption only when not less than two-thirds of the legislature party agrees.
29. Under Article 75(1A), what is the maximum size of the Union Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister?
A Twenty per cent of Parliament's combined membership
B Ten per cent of the Rajya Sabha's membership
C One-fifth of the Lok Sabha's elected members
D Fifteen per cent of the Lok Sabha's total membership
Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment, caps the Union Council of Ministers including the Prime Minister at fifteen per cent of the Lok Sabha's total membership.
30. Which amendment moved the Right to Property out of the Fundamental Rights chapter and added Article 300A?
A The 61st Amendment
B The 42nd Amendment
C The 44th Amendment
D The 52nd Amendment
The 44th Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and inserted Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.