What field addresses ownership, use, and transfer of land and buildings?
A Criminal procedure
B Property law
C Company accounting
D Election administration
Answer: B. Property law. Property law concerns rights in property, including ownership, use, possession, and transfer.
Which example is ordinarily treated as immovable property?
A A motor vehicle
B A residential building
C A bank deposit
D A share certificate
Answer: B. A residential building. Land and buildings are common examples of immovable property; statutory definitions and exceptions still matter.
Which central statute governs many transfers of property between living persons?
A Family Courts Act
B Transfer of Property Act
C Indian Easements Act
D Registration Act
Answer: B. Transfer of Property Act. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 governs several forms of inter vivos property transfer, subject to other applicable laws.
Under the Transfer of Property Act, what makes a transfer an act of parties?
A A court imposes a fine
B A will takes effect
C A tax record changes
D A living person transfers property
Answer: D. A living person transfers property. Section 5 describes a transfer of property as an act by which a living person conveys property to another living person or persons.
Who may transfer property under section 7 of the Act?
A Any tenant without consent
B An entitled, competent transferor
C Any witness to sale
D A broker without authority
Answer: B. An entitled, competent transferor. Section 7 requires the transferor to be competent to contract and entitled to the property or authorized to dispose of it.
Why is a title check useful before buying property?
A It checks ownership and claims
B It replaces a sale deed
C It fixes local stamp duty
D It guarantees future prices
Answer: A. It checks ownership and claims. A title review helps examine the seller’s ownership and recorded claims before a transaction; it cannot guarantee every risk away.
What does an agreement for sale alone create under section 54?
A Immediate legal ownership
B A registered mortgage
C No property interest or charge
D An easement by necessity
Answer: C. No property interest or charge. Section 54 states that a contract for sale does not, by itself, create any interest in or charge on the property.
When is a property sale complete under the Act’s general definition?
A Possession changes hands alone
B A broker signs the agreement
C A tax record is updated
D Ownership transfers for a price
Answer: D. Ownership transfers for a price. Section 54 defines sale as transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised.
What should a seller disclose under section 55 when applicable?
A Known material title defects
B The buyer’s loan terms
C Future market forecasts
D A neighbor’s private debts
Answer: A. Known material title defects. Section 55 requires disclosure of material defects in the property or title that the seller knows and the buyer could not discover with ordinary care.
In a mortgage, what does the borrower transfer to secure a debt?
A Full ownership without conditions
B An interest in property
C A lease to the lender
D A right to sell shares
Answer: B. An interest in property. Section 58 defines a mortgage as transfer of an interest in specific immovable property to secure a loan, debt, or pecuniary liability.
What is the mortgagee commonly called in a loan secured by land?
A The tenant
B The broker
C The lender
D The registrar
Answer: C. The lender. The mortgagee is the person in whose favour the mortgage is made, commonly the lender.
Which arrangement gives a tenant a right to enjoy property for a term?
A A gift
B A mortgage
C A lease
D A sale
Answer: C. A lease. Section 105 defines a lease as transfer of a right to enjoy immovable property for a certain time, expressly or impliedly.
When does the central registration framework generally require a lease instrument to be registered?
A Term exceeds one month
B Rent is paid monthly
C Term exceeds one year
D Tenant is a company
Answer: C. Term exceeds one year. The Transfer of Property Act and Registration Act generally require registration for leases from year to year, for a term exceeding one year, or reserving yearly rent.
What distinguishes a gift from a sale under section 122?
A Voluntary, without consideration
B Gift requires a market price
C Sale is always conditional
D Gift transfers future property
Answer: A. Voluntary, without consideration. Section 122 describes a gift as a voluntary transfer of existing property without consideration, accepted by or for the donee.
Which formalities apply to a gift of immovable property under section 123?
A Oral promise before one witness
B Registered deed, donor signature, witnesses
C Tenant approval and possession
D Court decree and valuation
Answer: B. Registered deed, donor signature, witnesses. Section 123 requires a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and attested by at least two witnesses.
Can a donor revoke a gift simply because they changed their mind?
A Yes, at any later time
B No, statutory grounds are required
C Yes, if property prices fall
D Only after a court sale
Answer: B. No, statutory grounds are required. Section 126 permits revocation only in specified circumstances, such as an agreed event not depending solely on the donor’s will, or grounds that would rescind a contract.
Which document is expressly subject to compulsory registration under the Registration Act?
A Every private letter
B Every rental receipt
C Gift of immovable property
D Every unregistered will
Answer: C. Gift of immovable property. Section 17 of the Registration Act lists instruments of gift of immovable property among documents requiring registration.
What kind of lease is listed for compulsory registration by the central Registration Act?
A Any lease under one month
B Every oral tenancy
C Lease exceeding one year
D A license for one day
Answer: C. Lease exceeding one year. Section 17 lists leases from year to year, exceeding one year, or reserving yearly rent, subject to statutory provisions and local amendments.
Why does registration matter in a property transaction?
A It proves every fact conclusively
B It removes all title defects
C It guarantees resale value
D It creates an official record
Answer: D. It creates an official record. Registration creates an official record for documents covered by law, but it does not by itself cure every title or legal defect.
What can happen when a document that must be registered remains unregistered?
A It automatically becomes a will
B It transfers title by possession
C May not affect property rights
D It cancels earlier registrations
Answer: C. May not affect property rights. Section 49 generally limits the effect and evidentiary use of an unregistered document required to be registered, while stating specific exceptions.
What is mutation in many land-revenue systems mainly used for?
A Creating title by itself
B Replacing a registered deed
C Updating revenue records
D Approving a building plan
Answer: C. Updating revenue records. Mutation updates revenue records after a transfer; such entries are administrative and are not, by themselves, a substitute for title documents.
How can an encumbrance search assist a purchaser?
A It can reveal recorded claims
B It guarantees clear title
C It confirms building quality
D It sets the sale price
Answer: A. It can reveal recorded claims. An encumbrance search can help identify recorded transactions or claims, though it is not a complete guarantee that no risk exists.
Imagine a boundary dispute arises; which document often helps trace ownership history?
A A chain of title deeds
B A recent utility bill
C A broker’s visiting card
D A property advertisement
Answer: A. A chain of title deeds. A sequence of title deeds can help trace transfers and ownership history, alongside other records and legal checks.
When property is subject to pending litigation, what does the doctrine of lis pendens generally do?
A Automatically voids every transfer
B Makes transfers subject to outcome
C Ends the pending case
D Transfers ownership to court
Answer: B. Makes transfers subject to outcome. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act generally prevents a party from transferring disputed property during litigation so as to affect another party’s rights under the eventual decree.
What does the doctrine of part performance protect in a qualifying property contract?
A Automatic registered ownership
B Certain possession-based contractual rights
C A tenant’s permanent title
D An oral gift without limits
Answer: B. Certain possession-based contractual rights. Section 53A can protect a transferee who satisfies its written-contract, possession, and performance conditions; it does not itself convey title.
What is an easement under the Indian Easements Act?
A A transfer of full ownership
B A right over another’s land
C A building approval certificate
D A temporary loan
Answer: B. A right over another’s land. Section 4 defines an easement as a right enjoyed by an owner or occupier of one land for its beneficial enjoyment over another person’s land.
Which land is the dominant heritage in an easement?
A The land receiving the benefit
B The land carrying the burden
C The land sold most recently
D Tenant-held land
Answer: A. The land receiving the benefit. The dominant heritage is the land for whose beneficial enjoyment the easement exists.
Which land is called the servient heritage?
A The land receiving the benefit
B The land burdened by easement
C The land held under mortgage
D The land without an owner
Answer: B. The land burdened by easement. The servient heritage is the land over which the easement is exercised.
When a homeowner crosses a neighbor’s land to reach a road, what right might this describe?
A A mortgage by deposit
B A transfer of title
C A right-of-way easement
D A lease renewal
Answer: C. A right-of-way easement. A right of way over another’s land for beneficial enjoyment can be an easement under the Act.
When may an easement of necessity arise under the Act?
A Whenever a route is shorter
B When a tenant requests privacy
C After any land sale
D After severance leaves no access
Answer: D. After severance leaves no access. Section 13 addresses easements of necessity and quasi-easements that may arise when property is severed and access is necessary.
How does a license differ from an easement in general?
A Permanent ownership transfer
B Registered mortgage interest
C A right binding every buyer
D Permission, not a land interest
Answer: D. Permission, not a land interest. Section 52 defines a license as permission to do something on another’s property that would otherwise be unlawful, without creating an easement or interest in the property.
What usually passes with a transfer of the dominant heritage?
A Its attached easement rights
B The servient owner’s title
C A new mortgage automatically
D Every personal license
Answer: A. Its attached easement rights. Section 19 generally provides that transfer of the dominant heritage passes the easement attached to it, subject to the Act.
Which remedy can restrain interference with an easement?
A A probate order
B A tax assessment
C A marriage decree
D An injunction
Answer: D. An injunction. Section 35 of the Indian Easements Act provides for an injunction to restrain disturbance of an easement in appropriate cases.
Under the Specific Relief Act, how may a person entitled to possession recover immovable property?
A By changing revenue entries
B By a private notice alone
C By a possession suit
D By filing a tax return
Answer: C. By a possession suit. Section 5 permits a person entitled to possession of specific immovable property to recover it through the procedure prescribed by civil law.
What does section 6 of the Specific Relief Act address?
A Transfer by registered gift
B Creation of a lease
C Cancellation of a mortgage
D Recovery after wrongful dispossession
Answer: D. Recovery after wrongful dispossession. Section 6 provides a summary remedy for a person dispossessed of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, subject to its time and other limits.
When does specific performance become relevant in a property dispute?
A A qualifying contract needs enforcement
B Price estimate
C Lease term automatically ends
D Title search returns map
Answer: A. A qualifying contract needs enforcement. Specific performance is a court remedy to enforce a contract where statutory requirements are met; the Specific Relief Act governs its availability.
What is RERA’s broad purpose in the real-estate sector?
A Criminal sentencing for tenants
B Replacing every state land law
C Setting a national sale price
D Transparency and consumer protection
Answer: D. Transparency and consumer protection. The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 aims at regulation, transparency, consumer protection, and dispute redressal in the real-estate sector.
Before marketing a covered real-estate project, what does RERA generally require?
A Project registration with authority
B Approval from every buyer
C A completed sale deed
D A court-appointed broker
Answer: A. Project registration with authority. Section 3 generally bars a promoter from advertising, marketing, booking, or selling a covered project without registering it, subject to statutory exemptions.
Who may submit a complaint under section 31 of RERA?
A Only a government officer
B Only a registered architect
C Any property advertiser
D An aggrieved person
Answer: D. An aggrieved person. Section 31 allows an aggrieved person to file a complaint with the Authority or adjudicating officer, as applicable.
What must a real-estate agent generally do before facilitating covered sales under RERA?
A Obtain a court judgment
B Buy the advertised property
C Issue the occupancy certificate
D Register with the authority
Answer: D. Register with the authority. Section 9 requires real-estate agents dealing in registered projects to register with the relevant Authority, subject to the Act.
Which information can an allottee seek from a promoter under RERA?
A Plans, specifications, progress updates
B Competitor pricing data
C Another buyer’s bank records
D Private family documents
Answer: A. Plans, specifications, progress updates. Section 11 requires promoters to make specified project information available, including sanctioned plans, layout plans, and stage-wise schedules.
If a promoter cannot give possession as agreed, what remedy may RERA provide to an allottee who withdraws?
A Automatic ownership of another unit
B A criminal conviction
C A rent-free lease
D Refund with interest
Answer: D. Refund with interest. Section 18 provides for refund with interest and compensation in specified circumstances where the promoter fails to complete or give possession.
Which central law addresses fair compensation and rehabilitation for land acquisition?
A Registration Act, 1908
B Indian Easements Act, 1882
C 2013 Land Acquisition Act
D Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Answer: C. 2013 Land Acquisition Act. The 2013 land-acquisition statute sets a framework addressing compensation, rehabilitation, and resettlement for qualifying acquisitions.
Why should buyers check local land-use and building rules?
A State and local rules vary
B Central law never applies
C Private contracts replace permits
D Registration grants building approval
Answer: A. State and local rules vary. Planning, land-use, stamp-duty, and registration requirements can vary by state and locality, so transaction checks should account for local rules.
What does a public title record help establish during due diligence?
A Recorded ownership and transactions
B Future market value
C Structural safety certification
D A guaranteed absence of disputes
Answer: A. Recorded ownership and transactions. Public records may help verify recorded ownership and transactions, but due diligence should also review underlying documents and applicable law.
What is a common risk when buying property from someone without authority?
A The mortgage expires immediately
B The transfer may be challenged
C Registration becomes unnecessary
D The property becomes an easement
Answer: B. The transfer may be challenged. A transferor generally must be entitled to the property or authorized to dispose of it; lack of authority can undermine the transfer.
Who ordinarily receives rent under a valid lease?
A The lessor
B The mortgagee
C The registrar
D The neighboring landowner
Answer: A. The lessor. The lessor transfers a right to enjoy property to the lessee for consideration, commonly rent.
Which parties are central to a gift transfer?
A Lessor and lessee
B Donor and donee
C Mortgagor and mortgagee
D Promoter and allottee
Answer: B. Donor and donee. A gift involves a donor who transfers property and a donee who accepts it under the statutory conditions.
Why should a purchaser review the sale deed and supporting records together?
A To avoid every registration fee
B To replace physical inspection
C To check terms and title
D To guarantee future appreciation
Answer: C. To check terms and title. Reviewing the conveyance and supporting title records helps check what is being transferred, by whom, and subject to which recorded interests.
What remedy can separate co-owners’ interests in jointly held property?
A Probate
B Foreclosure
C Easement
D Partition
Answer: D. Partition. Partition divides or separates interests in co-owned property, subject to the applicable law and any governing agreement.