In India, which constitutional provision protects freedom of speech and expression?
A Article 14
B Article 20
C Article 19(1)(a)
D Article 21
Answer: C. Article 19(1)(a). Article 19(1)(a) states citizens’ right to freedom of speech and expression.
Does India’s Constitution list press freedom as a separate fundamental right?
A No, it derives from speech
B Yes, Article 22
C Yes, Article 32
D Article 19(1)(b)
Answer: A. No, it derives from speech. Indian constitutional doctrine treats press freedom as part of Article 19(1)(a), rather than a separately listed clause.
Under which clause may reasonable restrictions on speech be imposed?
A Article 14(2)
B Article 21(1)
C Article 14(1)
D Article 19(2)
Answer: D. Article 19(2). Article 19(2) identifies the grounds for reasonable restrictions on the right in Article 19(1)(a).
Which ground appears in Article 19(2)?
A Editorial preference
B Public order
C Audience ratings
D Sponsorship
Answer: B. Public order. Public order is one of the grounds expressly listed in Article 19(2).
What must a restriction on speech meet under Article 19(2)?
A A newsroom vote
B A listed ground and reasonableness
C A sponsor’s approval
D Popularity alone
Answer: B. A listed ground and reasonableness. The constitutional text permits reasonable restrictions on specified grounds; it does not create an unlimited power.
What legal concern may arise from a false claim that harms someone’s reputation?
A Copyright
B Contempt
C Plagiarism
D Defamation
Answer: D. Defamation. A false reputation-harming statement may raise defamation issues; legal assessment depends on the facts and applicable law.
Can India’s constitutional speech right be treated as absolute?
A No, restrictions may apply
B Yes, in every case
C Only online
D Only for print
Answer: A. No, restrictions may apply. Article 19(2) allows reasonable restrictions on specified grounds.
Which Indian statute defines civil and criminal contempt?
A Press Council Act, 1978
B Copyright Act, 1957
C Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
D Right to Information Act, 2005
Answer: C. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines civil and criminal contempt.
Under that Act, what is civil contempt?
A A harsh review
B A private interview
C An offensive headline
D Wilful disobedience of court order
Answer: D. Wilful disobedience of court order. The Act defines civil contempt to include wilful disobedience of a court judgment, direction, order, writ, or process.
What does Section 4 protect when reporting judicial proceedings?
A Anonymous allegations
B Edited transcripts
C Fair and accurate reports
D A reporter’s prediction
Answer: C. Fair and accurate reports. Section 4 says a fair and accurate report of a judicial proceeding is not contempt, subject to the Act.
How does Section 5 treat fair criticism of a judicial act?
A It is always contempt
B It is not contempt
C It needs a licence
D Prior approval
Answer: B. It is not contempt. Section 5 provides that fair criticism of a judicial act is not contempt.
Who determines whether a publication amounts to contempt?
A The competent court
B The newsroom
C The advertiser
D The audience
Answer: A. The competent court. Contempt is determined through the applicable judicial process, not by a publisher’s own declaration.
When a court order restricts reporting, what should editors consult?
A A social post
B A news headline
C The current court order
D An unofficial paraphrase
Answer: C. The current court order. The precise wording and status of the court’s order control; summaries can omit important limits.
During a pending case, what helps readers distinguish allegations from findings?
A Clear attribution and status
B A dramatic headline
C Unverified quotations
D The report’s popularity
Answer: A. Clear attribution and status. Accurate attribution makes clear who alleges a fact and whether a court has decided it.
Which Indian law gives citizens a process to seek records from public authorities?
A Consumer Protection Act, 2019
B Press Council Act, 1978
C Cable Television Networks Act, 1995
D Right to Information Act, 2005
Answer: D. Right to Information Act, 2005. The RTI Act establishes a process for requesting information held by public authorities.
What kind of information can a newsroom request under the RTI Act?
A Private newsroom drafts
B Records held by public authorities
C Any personal account
D Anonymous social posts
Answer: B. Records held by public authorities. The Act concerns information held by or under the control of public authorities, subject to its provisions.
Does the RTI Act require release of every requested record?
A Yes, without exception
B No, statutory exemptions apply
C Only to journalists
D Only editorials
Answer: B. No, statutory exemptions apply. The Act includes exemptions, so a request does not guarantee access to every record.
How can a reporter make an RTI request easier to process?
A Ask for everything
B Use only a headline
C Request every record
D Specify records and date range
Answer: D. Specify records and date range. A focused request identifying records and a period is easier to search and assess.
What is the Press Council Act’s main subject?
A Press Council of India
B Film certification
C Telecom licensing
D Telecom authority
Answer: A. Press Council of India. The Press Council Act, 1978 establishes the Press Council of India.
Which purpose is stated for the Press Council Act?
A Set advertising prices
B License every journalist
C Preserve press freedom and standards
D Control internet platforms
Answer: C. Preserve press freedom and standards. The Act’s long title refers to preserving press freedom and maintaining and improving newspaper and news-agency standards.
Under Section 13(b), what is the Press Council tasked to build?
A A broadcast licence
B A copyright registry
C A licensing framework
D A journalistic conduct code
Answer: D. A journalistic conduct code. Section 13(b) mandates building a code of conduct for newspapers, news agencies, and journalists.
Are the Press Council’s journalistic norms themselves a statute?
A Yes, they are criminal law
B Only for television
C No, they are professional norms
D They impose criminal penalties
Answer: C. No, they are professional norms. The norms guide professional conduct; they are not themselves an Act of Parliament.
What balance do the Press Council’s norms encourage?
A Speed with popularity
B Freedom with responsibility
C Profit with secrecy
D Commercial success over accuracy
Answer: B. Freedom with responsibility. The Council describes self-regulation as balancing the exercise of press freedom with responsibility.
What should a journalist do when a Press Council norm is relevant?
A Apply it with discernment
B Treat as court order
C Ignore all context
D Follow it without context
Answer: A. Apply it with discernment. The Council expects norms to be applied with discernment and adapted to the circumstances.
Which law contains India’s fair-dealing exceptions to copyright infringement?
A Right to Information Act
B Press Council Act
C Copyright Act, 1957
D Cable Television Networks Act
Answer: C. Copyright Act, 1957. Section 52 of the Copyright Act lists acts that do not constitute infringement.
Which purpose is named in Section 52(1)(a)?
A Reporting current events
B Selling access codes
C Replacing the original work
D Promoting a brand
Answer: A. Reporting current events. Section 52(1)(a) includes fair dealing for reporting current events and current affairs.
What other purpose is named in that fair-dealing clause?
A Commercial resale
B Bulk redistribution
C Resale for profit
D Criticism or review
Answer: D. Criticism or review. The clause includes fair dealing for criticism or review.
Does fair dealing permit every full repost of a copyrighted article?
A Yes, always
B No, scope and purpose matter
C Only on social media
D Yes, when credited
Answer: B. No, scope and purpose matter. The exception is purpose-specific; it is not blanket permission to reproduce any work in full.
Is naming the creator alone enough to authorize copying?
A Yes, in all cases
B No, attribution is not permission
C Only for photos
D Yes, if cited
Answer: B. No, attribution is not permission. Attribution is good practice but does not by itself establish permission or a valid exception.
What does copyright generally protect?
A Every fact
B A general idea
C A general method
D Original expression
Answer: D. Original expression. Copyright protects qualifying expression, while ideas and facts as such are not protected in the same way.
Before reproducing substantial protected material, what should a newsroom check?
A Permission or a valid exception
B The author’s popularity
C The post’s age
D A file’s popularity
Answer: A. Permission or a valid exception. A newsroom should confirm authorization or that a specific legal exception applies.
When using Creative Commons material, what must users follow?
A The author’s latest post
B A platform’s font
C The selected licence terms
D A platform’s colour
Answer: C. The selected licence terms. Creative Commons licences set conditions such as attribution or limits on adaptations and commercial use.
Does finding an image online make it public domain?
A Yes, by default
B Only on search engines
C Only for newspapers
D No, access gives no licence
Answer: D. No, access gives no licence. Availability online does not by itself remove copyright or grant a reuse licence.
Which law sets a Programme Code for cable services?
A Copyright Act, 1957
B Press Council Act, 1978
C Cable TV Networks Regulation Act
D Right to Information Act, 2005
Answer: C. Cable TV Networks Regulation Act. Section 5 of the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995 concerns the Programme Code.
What does Section 5 of that Act address?
A Copyright duration
B Programme Code
C Press registration
D Advertisement Code
Answer: B. Programme Code. Section 5 concerns the Programme Code for programmes transmitted or retransmitted through cable service.
Which topic does Section 6 of the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act cover?
A Advertisement Code
B Programme schedules
C News corrections
D Programme Code
Answer: A. Advertisement Code. Section 6 addresses the Advertisement Code for cable-service advertisements.
Before cable transmission, a programme must conform to what?
A A sponsor’s slogan
B A press release
C The prescribed Programme Code
D A sponsor’s approval
Answer: C. The prescribed Programme Code. The Act bars cable transmission or retransmission of a programme unless it conforms to the prescribed Programme Code.
Which Indian law defines a misleading advertisement for consumer purposes?
A Consumer Protection Act, 2019
B Press Council Act, 1978
C Contempt of Courts Act
D Cable Television Act, 1995
Answer: A. Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines misleading advertisement in relation to goods and services.
Which practice can make an advertisement misleading under that Act?
A Using a short slogan
B Showing a product clearly
C Showing a true price
D Concealing important information
Answer: D. Concealing important information. The Act’s definition includes deliberate concealment of important information.
Under the Act, what can count as an endorsement?
A A court filing
B A message or depiction
C A news correction
D A court ruling
Answer: B. A message or depiction. The Act’s definition includes messages, statements, demonstrations, and certain depictions of identifiable characteristics.
What should support an objective factual claim in an advertisement?
A A celebrity quote
B Reliable evidence
C A trending hashtag
D A logo’s colour
Answer: B. Reliable evidence. Accurate, supportable claims reduce the risk of misleading consumers.
Do advertising self-regulatory codes replace applicable Indian statutes?
A Yes, in every case
B Only for online ads
C Yes, through all platforms
D No, legal duties still apply
Answer: D. No, legal duties still apply. Industry codes may guide practice but do not displace applicable legislation.
Which Indian rules address intermediaries and digital media ethics?
A IT Rules, 2021
B RTI Rules, 2005
C Cable Rules, 1994
D Press Council Norms, 2022
Answer: A. IT Rules, 2021. The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules were notified in 2021.
The IT Rules include a Code of Ethics for which online publishers?
A Online shops
B Private family groups
C News and current affairs
D Entertainment-only publishers
Answer: C. News and current affairs. The Rules’ Code of Ethics applies to publishers of news and current affairs content, as described in the rules.
Do the IT Rules treat intermediaries and publishers as identical roles?
A Yes, always
B Only on mobile
C Yes, same obligations
D No, their duties differ
Answer: D. No, their duties differ. The Rules set out distinct parts and due-diligence frameworks for intermediaries and publishers.
When a consolidated legal text shows a recent update date, what should editors use?
A An old screenshot
B A third-party summary
C The latest official version
D The oldest archived copy
Answer: C. The latest official version. Using the current official consolidated text helps avoid relying on superseded wording.
How should a newsroom verify whether a law has changed?
A Use a viral thread
B Check official amendments and Gazette
C Ask a sponsor
D A social media summary
Answer: B. Check official amendments and Gazette. Official legislation and Gazette notifications are primary sources for enacted changes.
What should a media-law question identify when rules differ by country?
A The applicable jurisdiction
B The article’s popularity
C The author’s employer
D The author’s preference
Answer: A. The applicable jurisdiction. Media-law requirements vary by jurisdiction, so a question should state which legal system it concerns.
For a fact-specific legal publication risk, whom should editors consult?
A A trending creator
B An anonymous commenter
C Qualified legal counsel
D A viral forum
Answer: C. Qualified legal counsel. Legal outcomes depend on facts and current law; specific cases should be reviewed by qualified counsel.
Before reusing protected media, what should an editor confirm?
A Licence, permission, or exception
B File size and colour
C Post age only
D A source’s popularity
Answer: A. Licence, permission, or exception. Reuse should be supported by permission, a licence, public-domain status, or a valid statutory exception.