When did India’s four Labour Codes come into force?
A 21 November 2025
B 1 July 2024
C 8 May 2026
D 1 April 2025
Answer: A. 21 November 2025. The Government brought the four Codes into force from 21 November 2025.
How many central labour laws were consolidated into the four Codes?
A Twelve laws
B Twenty-nine laws
C Sixteen laws
D Forty-two laws
Answer: B. Twenty-nine laws. The four Codes rationalized 29 central labour laws.
On what date were the Central Rules under the four Labour Codes notified?
A 21 November 2025
B 30 December 2025
C 8 May 2026
D 1 January 2026
Answer: C. 8 May 2026. The Central Rules were notified on 8 May 2026.
Which Code governs statutory minimum wages and timely wage payments?
A Industrial Relations Code
B Social Security Code
C OSHWC Code
D Code on Wages, 2019
Answer: D. Code on Wages, 2019. The Code on Wages consolidates laws on wages, minimum pay, payment, and bonus.
Which Code addresses trade unions, employment conditions, and industrial disputes?
A Industrial Relations Code, 2020
B Code on Wages, 2019
C Code on Social Security
D OSHWC Code, 2020
Answer: A. Industrial Relations Code, 2020. The Industrial Relations Code covers trade unions, standing orders, and industrial disputes.
Which Code provides a framework for gig-worker social-security schemes?
A Code on Wages, 2019
B Code on Social Security, 2020
C Industrial Relations Code
D OSHWC Code, 2020
Answer: B. Code on Social Security, 2020. The Code on Social Security includes provisions for unorganized, gig, and platform workers.
Where do occupational safety and working conditions sit in the four-Code framework?
A Code on Wages, 2019
B Industrial Relations Code
C OSHWC Code, 2020
D Social Security Code
Answer: C. OSHWC Code, 2020. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code governs workplace safety and conditions.
Who fixes the floor wage under the Code on Wages?
A State legislatures
B Employers’ associations
C Trade unions
D Central Government
Answer: D. Central Government. The Central Government fixes the floor wage, taking account of minimum living standards.
How must an appropriate government’s minimum wage relate to the floor wage?
A It cannot be lower
B It must match exactly
C It may fall below
D It is purely optional
Answer: A. It cannot be lower. An appropriate government cannot set a minimum wage below the floor wage.
What distinguishes a statutory minimum wage from an employee’s wages?
A Same amount by definition
B Statutory minimum versus agreed pay
C Only bonuses are wages
D Both are voluntary payments
Answer: B. Statutory minimum versus agreed pay. The minimum wage is government-fixed; wages are defined under the Code and employment terms.
If excluded allowances exceed half of remuneration, what does the wage definition require?
A Ignore all allowances
B Deduct the excess
C Add the excess to wages
D Convert it to bonus
Answer: C. Add the excess to wages. The excess over the 50% threshold is added back when calculating wages.
Which set lists wage periods permitted by the Code?
A Daily, monthly, yearly, seasonal
B Weekly, quarterly, yearly, daily
C Hourly, seasonal, yearly, monthly
D Daily, weekly, fortnightly, monthly
Answer: D. Daily, weekly, fortnightly, monthly. The Code permits daily, weekly, fortnightly, or monthly wage periods; none may exceed a month.
Under the standard rule, by when should monthly wages be paid?
A Before the seventh succeeding day
B By the fifteenth succeeding day
C At the quarter’s end
D After an annual audit
Answer: A. Before the seventh succeeding day. Monthly wages are ordinarily due before the expiry of the seventh day of the succeeding month.
How soon are due wages payable after an employee resigns?
A Within seven calendar days
B Within two working days
C At the next annual cycle
D Within thirty working days
Answer: B. Within two working days. On resignation or termination, wages due must be paid within two working days.
For overtime, what minimum rate applies to eligible employees?
A Same as normal wage
B One-and-a-half times wages
C Twice the normal wage
D Three times every allowance
Answer: C. Twice the normal wage. For employees whose minimum rate is fixed under the Code, overtime is paid at no less than twice the normal rate.
What is the general cap on wage deductions during one wage period?
A One quarter of wages
B Three quarters of wages
C The entire wage amount
D Half of the wages
Answer: D. Half of the wages. Authorized deductions generally cannot exceed 50% of wages in a wage period.
Before a fine is deducted, what safeguard must be provided?
A Opportunity to be heard
B Automatic salary suspension
C Public notice to coworkers
D Union approval in every case
Answer: A. Opportunity to be heard. The employee must have an opportunity to be heard before a fine is imposed.
For the same or similar work, what gender-based wage rule applies?
A Different scales by sex
B No gender discrimination
C Only women get allowances
D Pay varies by marital status
Answer: B. No gender discrimination. The Code prohibits gender discrimination in wages for the same or similar work.
What does the Code on Wages prohibit during recruitment?
A Written job descriptions
B Skills-based assessment
C Sex-based discrimination
D Clear wage terms
Answer: C. Sex-based discrimination. The Code prohibits discrimination on the ground of sex in recruitment for the same or similar work, subject to lawful exceptions.
How much service in an accounting year can meet the bonus minimum-work condition?
A Five consecutive weeks
B One full quarter
C Six calendar months
D At least thirty days
Answer: D. At least thirty days. An eligible employee must have worked at least 30 days in the accounting year, subject to the Code’s wage eligibility limit.
What minimum annual bonus rate does the Labour Ministry handbook state?
A 8.33 percent
B 5 percent
C 12.5 percent
D 25 percent
Answer: A. 8.33 percent. The handbook states a minimum annual bonus of 8.33%, with a maximum of 20%.
Which industrial establishments must have a grievance redressal committee?
A Only those with 300+
B Those with 20+ workers
C Any with one worker
D Only public offices
Answer: B. Those with 20+ workers. Every industrial establishment employing 20 or more workers must have one or more such committees.
How are worker and employer representatives balanced on a grievance committee?
A Employer majority required
B Worker majority required
C Equal numbers from both
D No employer representatives
Answer: C. Equal numbers from both. The committee must have equal numbers representing the employer and the workers.
What ceiling applies to the grievance committee’s total membership?
A Five members
B Fifteen members
C Twenty members
D Ten members
Answer: D. Ten members. The Industrial Relations Code caps the committee at ten members.
When is a registered union recognized as the sole negotiating union?
A It has 51% support
B It has 20% support
C It has 30% support
D It has 10% support
Answer: A. It has 51% support. Where multiple registered unions operate, a union with at least 51% support on the muster roll is recognized as the sole negotiating union.
If no union reaches 51%, which unions may join a negotiating council?
A Those with 5% support
B Those with 20% support
C Every registered union automatically
D Only the largest union
Answer: B. Those with 20% support. A union with at least 20% verified support may be represented on the negotiating council.
How long after giving strike notice must workers ordinarily wait before striking?
A Two days
B Seven days
C Fourteen days
D Thirty days
Answer: C. Fourteen days. A strike cannot begin within 14 days after notice; the notice must also fall within the 60 days before the strike.
During what period is a strike prohibited around conciliation proceedings?
A Only before conciliation starts
B After one calendar year
C Only during mediation
D During and seven days after
Answer: D. During and seven days after. The Code bars a strike during conciliation and for seven days after those proceedings conclude.
When can concerted casual leave itself count as a strike under the Code?
A 50% or more take leave
B Any one worker takes leave
C Only all workers take leave
D Less than 10% take leave
Answer: A. 50% or more take leave. A concerted casual-leave action on one day by 50% or more of workers is included in the Code’s strike definition.
At what staffing level do the Industrial Relations Code’s standing-order rules apply?
A 20 workers or more
B 300 workers or more
C 100 workers or more
D Every establishment regardless
Answer: B. 300 workers or more. The standing-orders chapter applies to industrial establishments with 300 or more workers, subject to the Code.
When may government require an establishment to form a Works Committee?
A At 20+ workers
B Only at 300+ workers
C At 100+ workers
D At every establishment
Answer: C. At 100+ workers. For establishments with 100 or more workers, the appropriate Government may require a Works Committee.
For trade-union registration, what membership floor generally applies?
A One worker in every case
B 51% of all workers
C Twenty-five members exactly
D 10% or 100; minimum seven
Answer: D. 10% or 100; minimum seven. The registration threshold is 10% or 100 workers, whichever is less, subject to a minimum of seven members.
How must fixed-term employment be documented under the Industrial Relations Code?
A A written fixed-period contract
B A verbal hiring promise
C An annual union vote
D An open-ended probation
Answer: A. A written fixed-period contract. Fixed-term employment is engagement under a written contract for a fixed period.
Compared with permanent staff doing similar work, what benefits do fixed-term workers receive?
A No statutory benefits
B Proportionate statutory benefits
C Only wages, never leave
D Benefits only after five years
Answer: B. Proportionate statutory benefits. Fixed-term employees receive statutory benefits proportionately and cannot receive lower wages or benefits than comparable permanent workers.
For a fixed-term employee, what service period triggers gratuity eligibility under the Code?
A After six months
B After five years only
C After one year of service
D After ten years
Answer: C. After one year of service. The Code provides fixed-term gratuity eligibility after one year of service under the contract.
How much does the employer contribute to the re-skilling fund for a retrenched worker?
A One month’s basic pay
B A full year’s salary
C Five days’ gross pay
D Fifteen days’ last wages
Answer: D. Fifteen days’ last wages. The employer contribution is generally equal to 15 days of the worker’s last-drawn wages.
Which worker groups receive express recognition for social-security schemes?
A Unorganized, gig, platform workers
B Only permanent managers
C Only government pensioners
D Only union leaders
Answer: A. Unorganized, gig, platform workers. The Code provides for schemes covering unorganized workers, gig workers, and platform workers.
Which benefit may a gig-worker social-security scheme provide?
A Guaranteed company equity
B Accident and old-age protection
C Automatic paid leave
D Housing title transfer
Answer: B. Accident and old-age protection. Permitted scheme subjects include accident insurance and old-age protection, among other benefits.
What is one possible funding source for a gig-worker welfare scheme?
A Only worker penalties
B Only state tax
C Aggregator contributions
D Unpaid overtime
Answer: C. Aggregator contributions. The Code allows schemes to be funded by aggregators, governments, beneficiaries, CSR funds, or combinations.
Which establishment meets the Code’s ordinary Employees’ Provident Fund threshold?
A Only one employee
B Five or more employees
C Fifty or more employees
D Twenty or more employees
Answer: D. Twenty or more employees. The Code’s First Schedule lists establishments with 20 or more employees for EPF coverage.
When can an establishment enter Employees’ State Insurance coverage regardless of headcount?
A One worker in notified hazards
B Only after 20 workers
C Only after 100 workers
D Only after 500 workers
Answer: A. One worker in notified hazards. The Code extends the ESI chapter to notified hazardous or life-threatening occupations employing even one person.
How soon must an OSH-covered establishment with 10+ employees apply for registration?
A Within seven days
B Within sixty days
C Within six months
D Only after an inspection
Answer: B. Within sixty days. The Labour Ministry handbook states that establishments employing 10 or more must apply within 60 days.
What is the employer’s central duty under the OSH Code?
A Set every union’s wages
B Approve all leave requests
C Maintain safe working conditions
D Choose workers’ careers
Answer: C. Maintain safe working conditions. Employers must maintain safe, healthy, and suitable working conditions and address workplace hazards.
Which document must employers issue to employees under the OSH Code?
A A union membership card
B A pension approval order
C A yearly tax certificate
D A written appointment letter
Answer: D. A written appointment letter. The Labour Ministry handbook lists appointment letters for all employees as an employer compliance duty.
What health measure does the Labour Ministry handbook list for employers?
A Free annual health checks
B Monthly hospital admission
C Optional paid screening
D A one-time fitness test
Answer: A. Free annual health checks. The handbook lists annual health check-ups free of cost among OSH compliance duties.
Which groups should a Safety Committee represent when constituted?
A Managers and customers
B Employer and worker representatives
C Inspectors and suppliers
D Only elected union officers
Answer: B. Employer and worker representatives. The Code provides for Safety Committees with representatives of both employers and workers, as prescribed.
Under the OSH Code, what permits women to work night shifts?
A A union vote alone
B No additional conditions
C Consent and prescribed safeguards
D Only a medical certificate
Answer: C. Consent and prescribed safeguards. Women may work in all establishments, including night shifts, with their consent and prescribed safety conditions.
What travel support is due to covered inter-State migrant workers once a year?
A A permanent housing grant
B A monthly meal voucher
C A lifetime rail pass
D To-and-fro journey allowance
Answer: D. To-and-fro journey allowance. The Code provides a lump-sum annual journey allowance for travel between the workplace and native place.
When must a workplace constitute an Internal Committee under the POSH Act?
A Ten or more employees
B Only after a complaint
C Five or more contractors
D Only in government offices
Answer: A. Ten or more employees. The Internal Committee requirement applies to workplaces with ten or more employees.
When should a complaint go to the district Local Committee under the POSH Act?
A Every complaint automatically
B Small workplace or employer complaint
C Only after a police case
D Only for wage disputes
Answer: B. Small workplace or employer complaint. The Local Committee handles complaints where an Internal Committee is not constituted, including qualifying small workplaces and complaints against the employer.