What is India’s current general criminal statute called?
A Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
B Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
C Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
D Indian Evidence Act
Answer: C. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is India’s current general criminal statute.
What is the official name of the BNS?
A Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
B Bharatiya Criminal Procedure Act
C Indian Justice Rules
D Bharatiya Nyaya Code, 2024
Answer: A. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. The statute’s short title is the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
Which Act number identifies the BNS?
A Act 45 of 2024
B Act 46 of 2023
C Act 47 of 2023
D Act 45 of 2023
Answer: D. Act 45 of 2023. The BNS is Act No. 45 of 2023.
What subject does the BNS principally consolidate and amend?
A Court procedure only
B Offences and related matters
C Evidence rules only
D Prison administration only
Answer: B. Offences and related matters. Its long title concerns provisions relating to offences and connected or incidental matters.
On what date did the BNS receive Presidential assent?
A 26 January 2024
B 25 December 2023
C 15 August 2023
D 1 July 2024
Answer: B. 25 December 2023. The Gazette records assent on 25 December 2023.
When did most BNS provisions come into force?
A 26 January 2025
B 25 December 2023
C 1 January 2024
D 1 July 2024
Answer: D. 1 July 2024. The commencement notification appointed 1 July 2024 for most provisions.
Which law primarily defines offences and punishments?
A Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
B Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
C Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
D Civil Procedure Code
Answer: A. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. The BNS sets out offences and punishments; the other new codes cover procedure and evidence.
Which new criminal law mainly covers investigation and trial procedure?
A BSA
B Evidence Act
C BNSS
D BNS
Answer: C. BNSS. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita covers criminal procedure.
Which provision was excluded from the 1 July 2024 BNS commencement notification?
A Section 358(1)
B Section 303(1)
C Section 4(f)
D Section 106(2)
Answer: D. Section 106(2). The commencement notification excluded Section 106(2) from that date.
What subject is named in Section 358 of the BNS?
A Community service
B Repeal and savings
C Private defence
D Criminal conspiracy
Answer: B. Repeal and savings. Section 358 is titled Repeal and Savings and repeals the Indian Penal Code.
What does the BNS savings clause protect after repeal of the IPC?
A Every old penalty permanently
B Only police procedures
C Prior rights and liabilities
D All future IPC offences
Answer: C. Prior rights and liabilities. Section 358 preserves specified past operations, rights, liabilities, and penalties under the repealed Code.
Which item is expressly listed as a BNS punishment?
A Community service
B Public apology
C Exile from India
D Licence suspension
Answer: A. Community service. Section 4 lists community service among punishments under the BNS.
What are the two descriptions of imprisonment under Section 4?
A Rigorous and simple
B Open and closed
C Temporary and permanent
D Local and national
Answer: A. Rigorous and simple. Section 4 describes imprisonment as rigorous or simple.
What does rigorous imprisonment mean in Section 4?
A Community supervision only
B A monetary penalty
C Imprisonment with hard labour
D Imprisonment without trial
Answer: C. Imprisonment with hard labour. The statute describes rigorous imprisonment as imprisonment with hard labour.
Besides imprisonment, which pair appears in the BNS punishment list?
A Rehabilitation and pardon
B Fine and forfeiture
C Warning and counselling
D Bail and probation
Answer: B. Fine and forfeiture. Section 4 also lists forfeiture of property and fine.
How does the BNS define a child?
A A person below sixteen
B A person below fourteen
C A person below twelve
D A person below eighteen
Answer: D. A person below eighteen. Section 2 defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age.
What does the BNS definition of good faith require?
A A witness signature
B Absence of all mistakes
C Due care and attention
D Written government approval
Answer: C. Due care and attention. Section 2 says an act or belief without due care and attention is not in good faith.
Which records are included in the BNS definition of document?
A Court files only
B Audio recordings only
C Paper records only
D Electronic and digital records
Answer: D. Electronic and digital records. Section 2 includes electronic and digital records within its definition of document.
What intention is central to acting dishonestly under the BNS definition?
A Wrongful gain or loss
B Public recognition
C Personal inconvenience
D A contractual delay
Answer: A. Wrongful gain or loss. The definition links dishonesty to intention to cause wrongful gain or wrongful loss.
What mental element is central to the BNS definition of theft?
A Public embarrassment
B Dishonest intention
C A mistaken belief
D Careless handling
Answer: B. Dishonest intention. Section 303 requires an intention to take movable property dishonestly from another’s possession without consent.
Which property can be the subject of theft under Section 303?
A Movable property
B A legal right only
C Land itself
D A public office
Answer: A. Movable property. Section 303 defines theft around movable property taken from someone’s possession without consent.
A sudden or forcible grab of movable property from someone is classified as what?
A Extortion
B Criminal trespass
C Mischief
D Snatching
Answer: D. Snatching. Section 304 treats a sudden, quick, or forcible taking of movable property as snatching.
When does the BNS describe conduct as extortion?
A Property is accidentally damaged
B A group makes an agreement
C Fear induces property delivery
D A person enters a building
Answer: C. Fear induces property delivery. Section 308 links fear of injury with dishonest inducement to deliver property or valuable security.
What must robbery involve under Section 309?
A A public servant
B Theft or extortion
C Only criminal trespass
D Only property damage
Answer: B. Theft or extortion. Section 309 states that robbery involves either theft or extortion, with additional specified force or fear.
How many people can satisfy the minimum for dacoity?
A Two or more
B Three or more
C Seven or more
D Five or more
Answer: D. Five or more. Section 310 defines dacoity around five or more people conjointly committing or attempting robbery, including those aiding.
Which concept best describes cheating under Section 318?
A Taking by sudden force
B Entering land accidentally
C Deception with dishonest inducement
D Damage without any intent
Answer: C. Deception with dishonest inducement. Section 318 concerns deception that dishonestly or fraudulently induces delivery of property or specified action or omission.
Entrusted property is dishonestly misused by its holder. Which offence may this describe?
A Public nuisance
B Criminal breach of trust
C Snatching
D Dacoity
Answer: B. Criminal breach of trust. Section 316 concerns dishonest misappropriation, conversion, use, or disposal of entrusted property contrary to law or agreement.
A threat intended to alarm someone or compel action may constitute what offence?
A Criminal intimidation
B Mischief
C Theft
D Extortion only
Answer: A. Criminal intimidation. Section 351 covers threats of injury made with intent to cause alarm or compel or prevent an act.
What is the general rule for an act by a child under seven?
A It requires a fine
B It is not an offence
C It requires community service
D It is always an offence
Answer: B. It is not an offence. Section 20 provides that an act by a child under seven is not an offence.
For a child aged seven to under twelve, what matters under Section 21?
A Sufficient maturity of understanding
B The property’s value
C School attendance
D A parent’s profession
Answer: A. Sufficient maturity of understanding. Section 21 applies where the child has not attained sufficient maturity to judge the nature and consequences of the conduct.
When can Section 22’s unsoundness exception apply?
A Any past diagnosis
B A later medical opinion
C Any unusual behaviour
D Incapacity at the time
Answer: D. Incapacity at the time. Section 22 concerns incapacity at the time to know the nature of the act or that it is wrong or contrary to law.
Which intoxication situation is addressed by Section 23?
A Intoxication after arrest
B Any use of medicine
C Substance given unknowingly or unwillingly
D Voluntary drinking at home
Answer: C. Substance given unknowingly or unwillingly. Section 23 addresses incapacity caused by intoxication where the substance was administered without knowledge or against the person’s will.
What conditions are required for the accident exception in Section 18?
A A public place
B Any act without witnesses
C Lawful act and proper care
D An unexpected financial loss
Answer: C. Lawful act and proper care. Section 18 requires accident or misfortune without criminal intention or knowledge during a lawful act done lawfully with proper care and caution.
Whom may a person defend under Section 35?
A Only personal property
B Own or another’s body
C Only a family member
D Only a public official
Answer: B. Own or another’s body. Section 35 covers one’s own body and another person’s body, as well as certain property, subject to restrictions.
What limit does Section 37 place on private defence?
A Property cannot be defended
B Only officials may act
C No defence after sunset
D No more harm than necessary
Answer: D. No more harm than necessary. Section 37 says private defence cannot extend to inflicting more harm than necessary for defence.
Which act can amount to abetment under Section 45?
A Intentionally aiding an offence
B Preventing an offence
C Reporting an offence
D Witnessing an offence
Answer: A. Intentionally aiding an offence. Section 45 includes instigating, engaging in a qualifying conspiracy, or intentionally aiding the doing of a thing.
What is the basic idea of criminal conspiracy under Section 61?
A A single person’s thought
B An accidental meeting
C A civil contract dispute
D Agreement to an illegal act
Answer: D. Agreement to an illegal act. Section 61 generally concerns an agreement by two or more persons to do an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means.
Which provision gives a general punishment rule for certain attempts?
A Section 62
B Section 103
C Section 303
D Section 22
Answer: A. Section 62. Section 62 addresses attempts where the Sanhita does not provide a separate punishment for that attempt.
Which provision defines culpable homicide?
A Section 109
B Section 100
C Section 101
D Section 106
Answer: B. Section 100. Section 100 defines culpable homicide by reference to causing death with specified intention or knowledge.
Where does the BNS define murder?
A Section 100
B Section 105
C Section 101
D Section 111
Answer: C. Section 101. Section 101 sets out when culpable homicide amounts to murder, subject to stated exceptions.
What punishment provision covers murder under the BNS?
A Section 103
B Section 106
C Section 112
D Section 100
Answer: A. Section 103. Section 103 sets out punishment for murder.
Attempt to murder is covered by which section?
A Section 111
B Section 108
C Section 109
D Section 110
Answer: C. Section 109. Section 109 addresses attempt to murder.
Which section addresses causing death by negligence?
A Section 103
B Section 109
C Section 113
D Section 106
Answer: D. Section 106. Section 106 addresses causing death by negligence; its subsections have distinct commencement status.
Organised crime is set out in which section?
A Section 112
B Section 111
C Section 114
D Section 109
Answer: B. Section 111. Section 111 contains the offence of organised crime.
A group member commits listed offences such as theft or snatching. Which section addresses petty organised crime?
A Section 303
B Section 112
C Section 111
D Section 113
Answer: B. Section 112. Section 112 addresses petty organised crime committed by a member of a group or gang.
Where is the offence of terrorist act located?
A Section 112
B Section 111
C Section 103
D Section 113
Answer: D. Section 113. Section 113 defines the offence of terrorist act.
Which cross-border computer conduct can fall within Section 1(5)?
A Posting from another country
B Owning an overseas laptop
C Computer resource located in India
D Using a foreign bank card
Answer: C. Computer resource located in India. Section 1(5) includes a person abroad who commits an offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
When may community service apply under the first-time theft proviso?
A Under ₹5,000 and restored
B Only after repeat convictions
C Any theft without conditions
D Only stolen cash returned
Answer: A. Under ₹5,000 and restored. Section 303’s proviso refers to a first conviction, property worth less than ₹5,000, and return or restoration.
Which intention is central to mischief under Section 324?
A Obtain property by fear
B Threaten someone’s reputation
C Take property suddenly
D Cause wrongful loss or damage
Answer: D. Cause wrongful loss or damage. Section 324 concerns causing or intending wrongful loss or damage to property, including specified destruction or change.
Which earlier general penal code did Section 358 repeal?
A Indian Evidence Act
B Indian Penal Code, 1860
C Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
D Code of Criminal Procedure
Answer: B. Indian Penal Code, 1860. Section 358(1) expressly repeals the Indian Penal Code.