Difficulty: Easy & Basic
Organizational cyber-risk management is guided by which framework?
A HTML
B SMTP
C NIST CSF
D JPEG
Answer: C. NIST CSF. NIST CSF helps organizations manage cybersecurity risks.
In role-based access control, what determines a user’s permissions?
A Assigned roles
B Device color
C DNS records
D IP fragments
Answer: A. Assigned roles. Role-based access control grants permissions through assigned roles.
During asset discovery, which CSF function is central?
A Respond
B Recover
C Govern
D Identify
Answer: D. Identify. Identify develops understanding of assets and related risks.
What does a firewall primarily filter?
A Password hashes
B Network traffic
C Screen brightness
D File extensions
Answer: B. Network traffic. Firewalls allow or block network traffic according to rules.
Unlike a firewall, what does an IDS mainly do?
A Encrypts every file
B Issues certificates
C Detects suspicious activity
D Assigns user roles
Answer: C. Detects suspicious activity. An IDS monitors for suspicious activity and raises alerts.
How does an IPS differ from a passive IDS?
A Only stores passwords
B Can block detected traffic
C Creates secure backups
D Replaces authentication
Answer: B. Can block detected traffic. An IPS can take action to block detected traffic.
Why should backups be isolated from production systems?
A Limit ransomware reach
B Speed up DNS
C Improve password length
D Reduce TLS encryption
Answer: A. Limit ransomware reach. Isolation makes it harder for ransomware to reach backup copies.
When should a password manager be useful?
A Sharing one password
B Disabling MFA
C Storing plaintext
D Creating unique passwords
Answer: D. Creating unique passwords. Password managers help create and store distinct credentials.
For public Wi-Fi, which encrypted tunnel can protect traffic?
A HTTP
B VPN
C Telnet
D POP3
Answer: B. VPN. A VPN can carry traffic through an encrypted network tunnel.
For public-key cryptography, what key pair is used?
A Two public keys
B Two passwords
C Public and private keys
D Salt and hash
Answer: C. Public and private keys. Public-key systems use a linked public and private key.
With symmetric encryption, what key arrangement is typical?
A Same secret key
B Public key only
C No key required
D Two unrelated salts
Answer: A. Same secret key. Symmetric encryption uses the same secret key for encryption and decryption.
Name the operation that creates a fixed-length digest.
A Decryption
B Hashing
C Routing
D Encoding
Answer: B. Hashing. Hashing maps data to a fixed-length digest.
What can network segmentation limit after a device is breached?
A Password length
B TLS version
C Email spoofing
D Lateral movement
Answer: D. Lateral movement. Segmentation can contain an intrusion by restricting movement between network zones.
What is one purpose of security logs?
A Support investigation
B Encrypt network links
C Replace antivirus
D Create passwords
Answer: A. Support investigation. Logs provide records that support monitoring and investigation.
Where should suspicious activity alerts be reviewed?
A CSS stylesheet
B Image editor
C Monitoring console
D DNS registrar
Answer: C. Monitoring console. Monitoring consoles collect and display security alerts.
Protective safeguards belong to which CSF function?
A Identify
B Protect
C Respond
D Recover
Answer: B. Protect. Protect covers safeguards that reduce cybersecurity risk.
Restoring capabilities after an incident belongs to which function?
A Govern
B Identify
C Protect
D Recover
Answer: D. Recover. Recover addresses restoration after an incident or disruption.
Which mechanism authenticates DNS data and protects its integrity?
A DHCP
B NAT
C DNSSEC
D ARP
Answer: C. DNSSEC. DNSSEC adds data-origin authentication and integrity protection to DNS.
Why enable multi-factor authentication?
A Adds another factor
B Shortens usernames
C Removes authorization
D Disables encryption
Answer: A. Adds another factor. MFA adds an independent authentication factor.
To verify downloaded software, which control checks its signature?
A DNS caching
B Traffic shaping
C Cookie filtering
D Signature validation
Answer: D. Signature validation. Signature validation checks whether software came from a trusted signer and remained intact.
For a sending domain, what does SPF identify?
A Encrypted web pages
B Authorized mail servers
C Allowed database users
D Trusted browser extensions
Answer: B. Authorized mail servers. SPF records identify hosts authorized to send mail for a domain.
What can DKIM attach to an email?
A VPN tunnel
B Password salt
C Cryptographic signature
D Firewall rule
Answer: C. Cryptographic signature. DKIM adds a cryptographic signature to an email message.
How does DMARC use SPF and DKIM?
A Encrypts message bodies
B Changes sender address
C Creates mailboxes
D Checks domain alignment
Answer: D. Checks domain alignment. DMARC evaluates SPF or DKIM results with domain alignment and policy.
To find incidents, which CSF function applies?
A Detect
B Govern
C Protect
D Recover
Answer: A. Detect. Detect covers finding and analyzing possible cybersecurity events.
What does a SIEM platform correlate?
A CSS rules
B Security events
C Image files
D DNS labels
Answer: B. Security events. A SIEM correlates security events and related log data to support monitoring.